View Full Version : 1 ohm?
johnny010
05-03-2005, 08:02 PM
Quick help question.
I know the way speakers are wired is the way amps are presented with impedence.
I have a 1ohm mono stable amp. If I run my two dvc 4 ohm subs at one ohm and then bridge into the amp, is that reducing the impedence level the amp is seeing?
Here is how the subs are wired...
Even though the amp is mono it has a + + - -.
Thanks,
JM
crash8168
05-03-2005, 08:14 PM
the resistance of that circuit is 2 ohms.
crash8168
05-03-2005, 08:15 PM
sorry i am wrong did not see the bridge. there is a formula for multiples, cant remember what it is though.
johnny010
05-03-2005, 09:17 PM
bump
Zacmc212
05-03-2005, 09:18 PM
Since it is a 1 channel amp, the extra positive and neg outputs are just to make it easier to wire. Use both the pos and neg, .....
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v514/Zacmc212/d4-1ohm.bmp
Yes i know i made neg and pos the wrong colors but im to lazy to change it...
exmaxima1
05-03-2005, 09:47 PM
the resistance of that circuit is 2 ohms.
I disagree. It sure looks like 1 ohm to me.
Matthew
00 528 Sport
Zacmc212
05-03-2005, 10:00 PM
I disagree. It sure looks like 1 ohm to me.
Matthew
00 528 Sport
The rockford fosgate one is def. 1 ohm, and the diagram i drew is the same thing just using both ++ and --
Also you got a PM :)
jayhudson
05-04-2005, 09:44 AM
You cannot bridge a mono amp. I suspect it has 2 sets of terminals for ease of paralleling 2 woofers. Check the amps instructions to be sure.
Jay
Redblurr325ix
05-05-2005, 01:52 AM
Very simple, you just use 1 set of the ( - + ) Wire them like in the Fosgate diagram. They have an extra set of speaker terms. That' all. Lots of mono amplifiers are that way now.
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